Legal Question in Family Law in Florida

I used LegalContracts.com to create a separation agreement for myself and my husband. We are not divorcing yet because I need to stay on his health insurance. He already had a house and mortgage in TN when we married 4 years ago, and we lived there together for 6 years before marrying. Since he had the house before we married, I moved out and now reside in Florida. However, I have invested thousands in remodeling the house and buying new appliances, as well as paying half the mortgage for approximately 10 years. I would like to ask for reasonable compensation when we divorce, but I'm not sure if the wording in the separation agreement will allow me to do that. The part that I'm questioning is as follows:

"The terms of this Agreement are intended to settle the matters addressed, but it will not be

incorporated into a final decree of divorce. The Parties agree that a subsequent separation

agreement will have to be made and duly incorporated into a final decree of divorce."

ASSETS

4. "The Parties acknowledge that they have agreed upon a division of all assets, owned or possessed

by them as marital property or separate property. The Parties are in possession of all of those

assets to which each is respectively entitled. Accordingly, neither makes any claim to any assets

in the possession of the other."

Does the first paragraph mean a new agreement will need to be made for the actual divorce and this one is only applicable during the separation? Or does the second paragraph mean I can't make a claim when we divorce that the ownership of the house evolved into a marital asset after I invested money and paid 1/2 the mortgage?

1 Answer from Attorneys

Related Questions & Answers

More Family Law, Divorce, Child Custody and Adoption questions and answers in Florida

Looking for something else?