Legal Question in Family Law in Florida
I've been married for 14 years. The house was already deeded to my wife (i am on the mortgage refi but not on the deed) but I made the mortgage payments for 14 years. Am I entitled to any compensation in a divorce.
3 Answers from Attorneys
if the house was hers before the marriage it is non-marital property however to the extent your mortgage payments reduced the mortgage balance you can claim that. Contact my office for free consultation 727-446-7659
Cannot give yes/no answer. Issue is for the Judge to decide. You may be able to recover a portion of the money you paid.
Both of my colleagues are correct. There are many issues in a divorce and they must be viewed together. You may have a monetary claim for the mortgage balance reduction if marital funds were used to pay the mortgage. However, if there are marital debts and obligations that remain after the divorce you may find that your "compensation" is much less or that you will not receive any such compensation when considered against what is owed.
Consult with a dissolution attorney who can give a better analysis of your case after considering all relevant factors.
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