Legal Question in Family Law in Florida

Wife and I are in the process of divorce. We have 4 rental homes. 2 are in both our names and 2 are in her name only. the two in her name are mortgaged in her name and she is the only one on the note and title. I had no idea she purchased these two homes until she completed the loan.

My attorney says I am responsible for her two houses. The title company says even if the judge rules I am responsible, the bank will go after her because her name is the only one on the title. My attorney said I'm dealing with two different laws and I am still repsonsible

Our two rental homes are paid in full. She is trying to force me to sell all four rental properties to an investor so she can get out from under her debt. Why would I want to sell two homes that are completely paid for to pay for her debt if I am not responsible.


Asked on 2/07/14, 7:53 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
John Smitten Carey and Leisure

Everything acquired during the marriage is presumed to be a marital asset so I agree with your attorney. Contact my office for free consultation. 727-446-7659. Also I agree with the title company she is on the mortgage not you so the lender will go after her not you.

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Answered on 2/07/14, 10:15 am


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