Legal Question in Family Law in Georgia

Is a motion to set aside agreement legally binding if not signed by a judge?


Asked on 3/31/10, 7:21 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys
Glen Ashman Ashman Law Office also dba Glen Ashman Attorney

It sounds like you are asking can two parties agree to violate a judge's order without the judge's ok.

The answer is no, and if that is attempted, both parties could be held in contempt depending on what they do.

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Answered on 4/05/10, 8:24 pm
Charles W. Field Charles W. Field, Attorney at Law

No.

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Answered on 4/06/10, 1:34 pm


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