Legal Question in Family Law in Georgia
Is it possible for the OCSS to go aback and say that my husband has not paid child support if the divorce decree was finalized in 2004 and after that the my husband was paying the EX by hand which in return she was writing him a receipt. The only problem is that we cannot find ANY receipts in 2004 but we did received a induction order in 12/28/2004 saying that they was gonna start deducting the child support order from his job and that he owed no PAST due amounts. And all of a sudden this has come up saying that he owes but here it is now 7 years later and the EX says that he's didnt pay in 2004. Please enlighten me on this matter.
2 Answers from Attorneys
Hire a family law/domestic lawyer IMMEDIATELY to handle this situation for you. You cannot do it on your own. No one on this site can give you an opinion because we can't read the 12/28/2004 order or review the rest of the documents related to your case, including the divorce decree. It goes without saying that your husband made a mistake paying the Ex directly instead of through the courts -- it's now his words against his ex's.
Best of luck.*****The above is for informational purposes only and does not create an attorney-client privilege.******
If your husband violated the court order and paid directly, he did that at his peril. And if he lost the receipts, he may get to pay again. At this point he has to hire a good lawyer to review the paperwork and records and determine a response. Since no one here has reviewed the papers, there is no way to tell you what will happen except to tell you he will have a very bad day in court if he keeps talking to OCSS without counsel.
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