Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Georgia
My Easement agreement Vs. neighbor's use over time
I bought a house 8 months ago, and the property line divides the driveway 2/3 ours, 1/3 my neighbor--name removed--
There was a written agreement 14 years ago that gives 100% use of the driveway to me.
My home was vacant for 12 months prior to my purchase. During this time, my neighbor used 100% of the driveway due to my home being vacant. Before that, I believe that the driveway was shared through a VERBAL aggreement. (Even though the written document states that the easement is 100% ours)
Which carries more weight? The written aggreement, or the verbal aggreement?
Thanks!
S.L.
1 Answer from Attorneys
Re: My Easement agreement Vs. neighbor's use over time
Not enought facts to answer your question. The answer will turn on whether your neighbor has an easment in gross or an easment appurtenant in the land. Clearly, it will not be less then your actual boundry ownership of the driveway.
A personal easment (a license or right to simply use the driveway) sometimes dies with the person who negotiated it with the owner. It will then be considered to not "run with the land."
You may want to read some simple cases in Georgia on easement in gross vs. easement appurtenant to get a feel for the proof required if you go to court on this issue.
Our firm does this type of work, but since there is no contingency involved it would always have to be on an hourly rate only.
If your dispute is located in one of the metro counties, we would be willing to discuss the matter with you. If not, you need to talk to a real estate attorney in your local county. Look for a litigator or trial attorney and not merely a real estate closing attorney -- they generally do not go to Court. We require 5K to 10K as an upfront retainer booked against $200 per hour.
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