Legal Question in Business Law in Illinois
Been conned
If someone gets money from you for one thing and then use's the money to pay a personal bill I hear that is a crime called conversion.
1.Is this true?
2.and if so is there a minimal amount it has to be ?
3. How do you go about chargeing this person?
Thank you
1 Answer from Attorneys
Re: Been conned
This is really a criminal law question, not a business law question, but I'll take a stab at answering your questions:
1. Depending upon the facts, if a person solicited funds knowing that he or she was going to use the money for another purpose, it is possibly theft by deception or a deceptive practice. If a person knowingly takes unauthorized control over property of another owner, that too is theft. Note that there must be action done "knowingly."
2. There is no minimum dollar value for theft to be a criminal offense, but the value determines the seriousness of the offense (misdemeanor, class 3 felony, etc...).
3. An individual cannot pursue a criminal prosecution for theft -- only the state can bring charges. You need to discuss the matter with your local states attorney.
David K. Staub, an Illinois business lawyer
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