Legal Question in Business Law in Illinois
Marking check ''paid in full'' valid?
I have a dispute over fees from my condo association. I wrote a letter disputing late fees, included the amount I felt represented the correct fees, and included a check for that amount marked ''paid in full''. The association cashed the check but refuses to acknowledge they accepted my offer to settle the outstanding balance in full.
Doesn't cashing a check marked ''paid in full'' accompanied by a letter detailing an offer constitute an implicit acceptance of the offer and become binding on the debtor?
I'm continuing to get assessed additional fees because of this situation.
2 Answers from Attorneys
Re: Marking check ''paid in full'' valid?
I litigated the identical situation for a client within the recent past. In that case, the client was assessed $15/mo. late fees. I discovered, however, that the condo's declaration only authorized late fees of $1. The condo board had voted to increase the late fee from $1 to $15; however, under the terms of the declaration, an increase in the late fees could not be made by a 2/3 vote of the members of the condo association.
The long & short of it was that the condo board had acted inappropriately in seeking to collect any amount over $1 and, by successfully winning on this point, we were able to force the condo board to return over $65,000 in wrongfully collected late fees.
So: Check your declaration.
-- Kenneth J. Ashman; [email protected]; www.lawyers.com/alo
Re: Marking check ''paid in full'' valid?
In your description of the problem you fail to state exactly where you put the notation. If you wrote it in the memo area it is not binding. The language must be on the back of the check just above the signature line and it must be for a genuine dispute.
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