Legal Question in Family Law in Illinois
my divorce decree states that i have to pay half the credit card debt from the proceeds of the sale of the house. after 3 years of trying to sell in this market, we did sell, but there where no proceeds, we actually lost money.
do i still have to pay the credit cards since there were no proceeds ? the other side says i do because the intent was to pay a martial debt. then why didn't they use that wording?
thank you
Asked on 10/31/09, 10:39 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Sue Roberts-Kurpis, Esq.
Law Office of Sue Roberts-Kurpis
Who do you expect to pay the debt if you don't. The other side is right.
Answered on 11/05/09, 11:29 am