Legal Question in Family Law in Illinois

My divorce was final in 2008. The court ordered the marital home be divided equally. The home has been for sale for 2 years. The lawyers have liens on the home and want to be paid. My exhusband is residing in the home. The only money I have is in that home. My current lawyer told me to sign the deed over to my exhusband. Why would I do this? That would mean I have no interest in the home, and would get nothing when it sold, and my liens would not be satisfied. I do not understand why my own lawyer would ask me to do such a thing. Please help.


Asked on 12/01/10, 11:15 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Jonathan Shimberg Shimberg and Crohn, P.C.

Impossible to answer without knowing more. Maybe X is paying all the fees and willing to pay you something. You get money before your atty as you may have a homestead interest up to 7500.

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Answered on 12/07/10, 10:23 am


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