Legal Question in Family Law in Illinois

A year ago my wife and I were purchasing a house. I could not get approved because I had a foreclosure on my credit history for a co-signing a few years prior. She was approved for the home by herself and signed by herself. We are now attempting a divorce. Even though I am not attached to any of the contracts for the home am I legally bound to the house debt through marital consent? Is there a legal precedent that would not be in my favor and make me responsible for the house?


Asked on 1/09/10, 6:05 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
John Steele Steele Law Firm

You are going to be liable for a portion of the home debt as it is marital debt, regardless of whose name is on it.

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Answered on 1/14/10, 7:17 am


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