Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Illinois

dad foreclosed on my house
After 17 yrs of marriage my husband and I separated. He was 6 payents behind on mortgage and the lender wanted to foreclose. My dad payed off the entire mortgage so the kids and I wouldnt lose the house. I had payed for 17 yrs until my savings ran out. My husband signed a contract promising to pay dad each month because he became the new lender. After 7 months, my husband never made a single payment, did not pay the taxes either. So dad foreclosed on the house. He did this to protect me and the kids so husband cannot take the profit when it sells. Does this make dad the sole owner of the property now? My husband said it only entitles dad to the $68,000 he payed the mortgage off with. Husband refuses to finish any of the work on the property, had the insurance cancelled for nonpayment and will not fix current problems with the home. He is also in trouble with the IRS he cheated on taxes last year. I filed innocent spouse. My dad did this to protect my interest in the property too, so husband cant take any of profit when it sells. Does this mean dad is the sole owner and our names are taken off the title? Is dad entitled to the entire profit when the home sells? I dont fully understand foreclosure and what it means to all involved.

Asked on 9/17/04, 10:19 am

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Re: dad foreclosed on my house

IF your father went through the proper foreclosure process, he would then own the property outright.

Answered on 9/17/04, 10:27 am

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