Legal Question in Civil Rights Law in India

Dear Rajeev Gupta Sir,

As Me and my son are not the party to the sale deed, so i guess we both cannot get the sale deed cancelled, however, on the basis of the proof of alleged fact, that property sold is an ancestral property, coupled with the further proof that we have share in said ancestral property, we can file an declaration to the effect that the said sale is not binding to my son and the same shall not effect my son's share in the ancestoral property and ask for the share of my son also in the below ancestoral property

I think by taking the copies of all the earlier sale deeds we should file the civil suit for the above declaration and partition suit in favour of my son.

I am really grateful to all of you for your valuable support and guidance.

Hope the above will solve our major problems and it might be easier for us.

Please put your comments and suggestion on this Sir.

Thanks a ton,Sir

Dear Rajeev Gupta Sir,

I am putting my question again to provide link for the full story:-

I am really grateful to all of you for your valuable support and guidance.

I had word with my lawyer (experienced more than 10 years) regarding the below judgement he is saying that the stay is valid for all the plots including the sold ones but some of local lawyers are arguing that your lawyer has taken the benefit of seniority and have kept the judge in dark and taken wrong order as the earlier sold plots can't be considered under stay as i have filed this case after the sale of the 70% of the ancestoral property property. They are really confused and nobody is being able to give me the clear picture.

I just wanted to know from the prospect of civil rights law if i have this order in my favour what it should mean it is valid for the 30% unsold property or it is valid for the 100% (all are ancestoral property). I think if the order has been passed it might have taken into account my full ws and it might be the order that stay is valid for 30% unsold property and injunction might be vaild for the 70% sold ones.

I just wanted to know from the prospect of civil rights law what should be the real meaning , I know land law might be different state to state but passed order's cant be and if an order has been passed the Honourable judge might have taken into account all the facts and circumstances.

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