Legal Question in Civil Rights Law in India
In recital portion of my registered sale deed it is written that the land belongs to me (vendor), has clear/flawless title and is free from all encumbrances, I and my heirs will have no claim over the land. Even if it is found defective and vendee and their heirs get ejected from any part of the land, I (vendor) and my heir s are liable to pay the compensation. Now after 38 years heir of the vendor is claiming the land on the ground that the property was ancestral and my father has no right to sell it alone. Now it is not clear that heir was major or minor at the time of execution of the deed. Vendor is dead now. If I get ejected from any part the land, can I file a compensation suit against his son on the basis of facts written in the deed? If not, can I have a claim over the other land/property of the vendor i.e. to seek partition suit? Is it a case of cheating by the vendor and is his son is liable to pay the compensation? Does civil liability criminal in nature pass on to next generation?
2 Answers from Attorneys
Your questions are imaginary based on a mere oral statement of vendor's son. A legal opinion may be available to you after you receive any summons / legal notice raising the dispute.
Your question is self-contradictory. If you are the vendor and the vendor is dead, how come you are raising this query?
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