Legal Question in Civil Litigation in India
I have brought a property from a person who inherited it from her father. She did not obtain any consent from her children before selling it to me. All her sons have obtained majority at the time she sold the property to me. I had a doubt whether they claim the property now. So, I got their signatures on an AFFIDAVIT for their no objection for selling the property to me.
Just want to know if this is sufficient?
Also, can this be treated as Ancestral property? If not, I think her sons cannot object in any way even though I have not obtained signatures. Am I right?
Thanks and kind regards.
2 Answers from Attorneys
it is ancestral property and noc may be sufficient
once a hindu dies intestate, his wife and all children become the co sharers of the property. upon attaining majority, they may give their consent for relinquishment of their share.
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