Legal Question in Civil Litigation in India

In mutation the estate office writes 20% extent owner of plot no ABC . How will another party define his share if he had purchased share ? Can he define his share floor wise? or according to mutation he cannot define his share as he had not got any poccession in property


Asked on 2/13/11, 10:11 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

RAJIV GUPTA (Cell: +91 9811284735) [email protected]

one has to go through the papers where the partition of property is done in order to ascertain as to how the sale deed needs to be prepared.

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Answered on 2/13/11, 10:14 pm
Sanjay Kalra Sanjay Kalra & Associates

It would have been better if you had stated the concerned authority where the mutation is to take place because each authority , namely , MCD , DDA or L and DO has different set of norms and rules for effecting Mutation . However, the Mutation is relatable to the title/ownership in the property and not with reference to possession if the Mutation is effected on the basis of Title . For instance , MCD makes mutations for purposes of realising property tax and the liability to pay that tax is of the owner and not of the person in Possession.If you could give more details , the reply could be sent to you if necessarry.

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Answered on 2/13/11, 11:18 pm


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