Legal Question in Civil Litigation in India

sir,

My father purchased property in his name. After his death one person claiming to be owner of the property on the basis of power of attorney,will, agreement that he had purchased the property for such an such amount but does not place any cash receipt as alleged that he had purchased the property for such an amount. can he cliam ownership on the basis of that agreement without having any cash receipt


Asked on 10/23/11, 2:01 am

3 Answers from Attorneys

Sanjay Kalra Sanjay Kalra & Associates

Yes and No as your question is without relevant facts .

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Answered on 10/23/11, 2:53 am
Sanjay. K. Dixit, Advocate. Sanjay K Dixit, Advocate @ Karnataka Bar Council Enrolement No: "KAR/898/2007"

Dear Sir,

If the mere property agreement has been registered at his name in the respective jurisdicitional sub-registrar office, then the registration is valid.

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Answered on 10/24/11, 7:34 am
Eashwar Prasad Gururaj Joshi & Co.,

By virtue of agreement, he cannot be a owner.

By virtue of GPA, subject to proof, he can exercise his rights but he cannot become owner.

By virtue of will, subject to proof and source of amount from which the property was purchased etc., the question will be answered.

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Answered on 10/27/11, 12:36 am


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