Legal Question in Civil Litigation in India
sir,
My father purchased property in his name. After his death one person claiming to be owner of the property on the basis of power of attorney,will, agreement that he had purchased the property for such an such amount but does not place any cash receipt as alleged that he had purchased the property for such an amount. can he cliam ownership on the basis of that agreement without having any cash receipt
3 Answers from Attorneys
Yes and No as your question is without relevant facts .
Dear Sir,
If the mere property agreement has been registered at his name in the respective jurisdicitional sub-registrar office, then the registration is valid.
By virtue of agreement, he cannot be a owner.
By virtue of GPA, subject to proof, he can exercise his rights but he cannot become owner.
By virtue of will, subject to proof and source of amount from which the property was purchased etc., the question will be answered.
Related Questions & Answers
-
I am a tenant since last 9 year.the owner has been issued sarfaesi notice he has... Asked 10/20/11, 8:25 am in India General Civil Litigation
-
In India, our grandfather wrote a handwritten will in 1970 and got it signed by 2... Asked 10/20/11, 7:25 am in India General Civil Litigation
-
Subdivided plots with 20feet passage. I got an offer for Subdivided plots with... Asked 10/20/11, 2:54 am in India General Civil Litigation
-
After issuing a notice under section 527 of mumbai municipal corporation act 1888... Asked 10/19/11, 7:44 am in India General Civil Litigation
-
Sir i ramesh from hanamkonda my father got some property from ancestral property how... Asked 10/18/11, 9:58 am in India General Civil Litigation