Legal Question in Real Estate Law in India
My grandfather had acquired a property (house) in the year 1956. He died in 1971 without leaving any will. He had 4 sons, all of whom are now expired as well. One of the sons (A) was not married and has no descendants while the other 3 (B, C, D) have legal heirs (sons and daughters, who are all married and have children). Now when we decided partition the property, one of the sons of B produced a will by A saying that A�s share in the above property will belong to him.
Is it legally valid for A to have willed his share in the property to someone else, keeping in mind that the property was a family-property (not self-acquired by A)?
4 Answers from Attorneys
The answer to your queries are here in below :-
1) A can will his share to anyone he wishes to do this as his share becomes his self acquired property after the demise of his father but you can challenge the same on various grounds and reasons.
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Hello,
A can make a will.
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