Legal Question in Real Estate Law in India
"A" got an stay and eventually a decree agnaist "B" for not raising boundary wall because his tenanted bathroom is in the land of "A". "B" purchased this property from the person who is actually the landloard of "A"....Now, "A" cleaverly purchased his tanented portion, but not that "bathroom" for which he got the stay." A purchased his tenant portion by doing sale deed in the name of his son...Though, now "A" is neither a tenant nor a landloard now...(because his tenanted portion is purchased by his son, where he did not purchased the bathroom for which his father had gotten degree.)...Now, after this new event that "A' has purchased his tenant portion in behalf of his son, "A" and his family including "A's" son are still using that bathroom (which he did not purchase)..Utimately, we took an injunction order where A's son, who is the property owner, were reistricted not interfere in the property of us..but still "A" and his family including his son are coming in our portion of land..and they say that they still have stay and decree in their favor where they can use the bathroom, no matter if they are not tenant anymore..however in reply to our writ, "A's son had said nothing in his reply, but his father again claims that he is still a tenant and that he has gotten an permanent stay and decree, however he did not disclose that they have now purchased their tenanted portion where they are now living in joint family"..We however have filed our sale deed and his son's sale deed...My humble question is that is "A" claims that he is still a tenant and that the decree passed in his favor when he was tenant aganist us is still valid where his son has bought his tenant portion, but not the bathroom for which the dispute was and decree was..Please help us, we are in extreme injustice..please help with some referance of rulings...Thanks in advance
1 Answer from Attorneys
In a pending court case, you may better advice from the lawyer who is handling the case.