Legal Question in Credit and Debt Law in Indiana
My husband and I are divorced and in divorce decree he is responsible for all medical bills that were incurred by him. He is an alcoholic. We have been sent to collections by the city we lived in for ambulance service for him. He and I have both told collection agency that he is responsible for that debt according to the divorce decree and I am not but they say that since it occurred before divorce was final and my name was on the house, I am also responsible. Can I be held responsible? Does the divorce decree mean anything in this case?
Asked on 8/19/13, 5:31 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Kenneth Wilk
Rubino Ruman Crosmer & Polen
You are not responsible for any debts that you did not sign for. If you originally did sign for them, then you are liable because the divorce decree is not binding on the creditors.
Answered on 8/20/13, 2:13 pm