Legal Question in Family Law in Indiana
My husband and i were married in Indiana Nov. 9, 1999. We each owned real estate prior to our marriage, which we later sold and jointly bought another property. In 2005, we separated, my children (not his) and I moved out, and neither of us has since filed for divorce. For about a year and a half following the separation, I helped him pay house payments and property taxes, but our relationship further deteriorated and it became too much of a financial burden on me. If we divorce now, am I still entitled to any portion of the value of the property we acquired together? I would only seek my initial investment, which came from proceeds of the sale of the property which was mine prior to our marriage.
2 Answers from Attorneys
The short answer is yes, you are entitled to have that treated as marital property like anything else the two of you own. An attorney can not predict how one item wil be divided without knowing a lot more than this, though. See an attorney in your area about representing you in a dissolution of your mariage, and you can obtain a more complete answer.
Good luck.
Yes. It is marital property. How much of that you are enttiled to may be dependent on other factors. You need to discuss the situation in detail with local counsel. Good luck.
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