Legal Question in Family Law in Indiana
If a man married a woman, in the state of Indiana, and moves into her house (owned solely by her � since the passing of her first husband), pays the house payment & utilities in their entirety for 24 years, and now, wants a divorce; is he entitled to any part of her house, even if there is not a written agreement?
Asked on 8/04/11, 1:21 pm
2 Answers from Attorneys
Jay Rigdon
Rockhill Pinnick LLP
The house is still marital property and subject to division in a dissolution of mariage action.
Answered on 8/04/11, 1:49 pm
The house is considered to be marital property regardless of who is in title and is considered , along with all other marital property when it comes time to dividing up the assets.
Answered on 8/05/11, 4:37 am
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