Legal Question in Family Law in Kansas
Can a person sue the state for discrimination against males in divorce cases?
Asked on 2/02/10, 8:14 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Anthony Smith
LawSmith
The question "can a person sue for..." is almost always ansered "Yes." The question is the likelihood of success. Without knowing any more facts, it appears that such a suit would be very vulnerable to a claim of sovereign immunity, by some officials, if not the in general. Proving such a case as a tort or contract claim would be very dificult and probably more expensive then any one litigant would want to pay. One could appeal a specific trial case on the basis of gender disparity and try to prove a pervasive tendency to discriminate against men, when taking it through the appellate levels.
Good luck
Answered on 2/09/10, 12:14 pm