Legal Question in Family Law in Kentucky

I bought a house right before I got married 10 years ago for 55,000 dollars. My name is the only one on the deed. My wife did make most of the payments on the house while I paid everything else. We are now getting a divorce and she has already found another place to live that she is renting. I still owe on the house but want to sell it. Would she be entitled to any of the money?


Asked on 2/15/11, 7:59 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Andrea Welker Welker Law Office

Property obtained before the marriage is non-marital and not subject to division. However, if she has somehow made improvements to the property, she may be entitled to a portion. Just making the payments on the house, however, is not enough to say she has an interest.

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Answered on 2/17/11, 5:14 pm


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