Legal Question in Family Law in Kentucky

Maybe. Generally speaking, property acquired prior to marriage is nonmarital and not subject to division. However, depending on how long you were married, what contributions she's made to the equity of the property, etc., she very well may have a marital interest. You should discuss this and other property issues with a local attorney.

No, she would only be entitled to share in any increase in value to the property as a result of your combined efforts (such as adding a room on). But, she would not be entitled to a share of increased value that is just a result of market forces (back when houses increased in value that is).