Legal Question in Family Law in Kentucky

If your spouse signs a prenumptial agreement before marriage, can he/she still have interest in the property that was yours before you married even if it simply stated he/she goes with only 2000 dollars and all else is technically settled due to this..


Asked on 2/21/11, 11:09 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Andrea Welker Welker Law Office

Property owned prior to the marriage, as a general rule, is non-marital and not subject to division. No prenup required for that one.

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Answered on 2/23/11, 3:42 pm


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