Legal Question in Consumer Law in Maryland

I own a home in Millington MD where I'm currently trying to sell (I do not live there; the house is vacant). I had the water turned off- through the town, first for repairs, but then because there was no need. I've been billed twice to the tune of 173.75$. They say it doesn't matter that I use neither water nor sewer. I'm essentially paying for nothing at all. Is this legal? There is no paperwork that I can find that states that I must pay a full sum for nothing.


Asked on 10/08/15, 11:22 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Cedulie Laumann Arden Law Firm, LLC

Generally yes, a utility provider can charge for service to a residence irrespective of the amount of water used. If the house is hooked up with water available at the turn of a faucet, it likely amounts to "service" even if no one is actively consuming water. There typically is another charge for gallons of water. That being said, if service has been "turned off" presumably there would be no charge for months without any service.

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Answered on 11/18/15, 2:30 pm


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