Legal Question in Business Law in Massachusetts
Monopolization
If a city makes an ordinace that outlaws the use of any other cities services but their own would that be considered creating a monoply?
I drive a taxi in Revere MA 02151 and the neighboring city has passed said ordinance making it that all persons within the city limits of Chelsea MA 02150 can only utilize their taxi services and are unable to call a neighboring city for their services even if they used that service to be brought to Chelsea.
Asked on 6/11/09, 5:57 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Re: Monopolization
You would probably be able to challenge that ordinance if that is the language used.
Answered on 6/11/09, 6:07 pm
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