Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Massachusetts
I entered into a contract written by the landlord, only signed by myself, that stated a house would be paid upon for five years then gifted to the tenant(myself). The landlord accepted payments for five years. Is the acceptance of payment enough to prove the contract is valid despite the landlords missing signature?
3 Answers from Attorneys
This contract is not enforceable unless signed by the other side or some other factor that indicates this is not only a rental.
This sounds like a 'rent to own' situation. I agree with attorney Pransky that it would be ideal to have the person's signature. On the other hand, if the landlord did or said certain things consistent with the terms of the agreement, an attorney may be able to make a colorable claim that he should be bound. It will be difficult, and any e-mail or short conversation indicating his non-acceptance of the agreement will kill your chances.
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