Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Massachusetts

I got married 6-25-2006, my husband sold property (in his name only) on 7-6-2006 without my consent, is that legal?


Asked on 6/19/13, 1:08 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

If the property was not your primary residence of the marriage, then yes.

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Answered on 6/19/13, 1:17 pm
Alan Pransky Law Office of Alan J. Pransky

There is nothing illegal in such a sale. It is possible that the title to the property is not a clear title and that you could have or even still have the right to have the sale rescinded. It depends on a number of factors the most important being the reason why he sold the property.

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Answered on 6/19/13, 1:17 pm


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