Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Massachusetts
Question about the deed to a House
Recently, my friend decided to sell her house. She has lived in the house for about 8 years, but currently the deed is in her father's name. She is still paying the mortgage, and always did, aside from a brief year-long period in which she went back to school (the reason why the deed got put under her father's name in the first place).
Now, after a long series of events, her father wants to sell the house and give her nothing from the sale. What are her options, here? Can she do anything at all, or does the absence of her name from the deed basically eliminate all possible options?
I also don't know if this matters at all, but her father also recently remortgaged the house, using the opportunity to buy two new cars and go on vacation multiplte times (adding no value to the house but significantly bolstering the mortgage payments).
I'd appreciate any help. Thanks!
1 Answer from Attorneys
Re: Question about the deed to a House
This is a tough one. The person with the deed gets to make decisions. While she may take some actions, the risk her father will represent is that what she was paying was the equivalent of rent, or alternatively a gift to assist him. The usual question that you will hear from an attorney who may take a case is whetherly it is going to be done on a contingency or at an hourly rate. The problems with the nature of the informal relationship between your friend and her father would make it hard to prove that she is entitled to reimbursement, or a part of the property. Maybe somebody else is of a different view. If you wish anything else contact me.
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