Legal Question in Discrimination Law in Missouri
Roe vs. Wade and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Does Roe vs. Wade contradict the United Nations' Universal Declaration of Human Rights? If so, is the UDHR no longer in effect?
Keeping in mind that the noun ''human'' is defined in Webster's dictionary as ''a bipedal primate mammal (Homo sapiens) that is anatomically related to the great apes usu. held to form a variable number of freely interbreeding races, and is the sole recent representative of a natural family (Hominidae); broadly : any living or extinct member of this family.''
And also that Article one (All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights.) cannot logically be used to exclude any humans not specifically mentioned, (I.E. unborn humans) because it only carries information about born humans and not all humans are born. Article two and the preamble do specifically include unborn humans.
If any criteria that separate individual humans cannot be used by the majority to discriminate against any individual minority human according to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, how can Roe vs. Wade coexist with equal and inalienable human rights?
1 Answer from Attorneys
Re: Roe vs. Wade and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Roe v. Wade was a decision by a United States Court, and is an interpretation of our laws and constitution. It is neither binding on, nor impeded by, United Nations' Declarations (which in and of themselves are usually not binding.)Your question is like asking if a Ford warranty is in conflict with a Toyota repair estimate.
International law is frequently in conflict with the laws of sovereign states. Take torture for example- the UN and most international governing bodies forbid it, yet many nations employ it.
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