Legal Question in Family Law in Missouri
Does a divorce agreement become void if one of the previous parties is shown to have been unfaithful during marriage even after the settlement?
Asked on 3/27/16, 6:26 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Anthony Smith
LawSmith
An agreement between ex spouses is like most other contracts. If faithfulness previous to the agreement was a term, it could effect the ability of one ex to enforce other terms against the other. Most agreements I've seen don't make previous faithfulness a term, so learning about it later would not voud the agreement. If the Judge turns the agreement into an Order, later learning of the other's unfaithfulness wouldn't alter it, let alone void the Order. Discuss this issue with the attorney that represented you in the divorce.
Good luck
Answered on 3/27/16, 6:58 pm