Legal Question in Family Law in Nevada

Can a woman who left her husband and moved in with another man and resided with him for six plus years come back and claim alimony payments from her legal husband. The woman has a well paying job. car 401 k.

The man is 66 years old and on disability. He resides out of the country. He has never lived in the state of Nevada. The man has no assets but his now social security check.

He does have two children by his current live in. The wife with whom he has had no contact for years is threathing him with filing a bigamy case. She wants a total of 1100 a month. "The couple live together for four years. She was with the other man for seven years.


Asked on 4/09/10, 4:53 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

Marshal Willick Willick Law Group

You raise numerous issues.

First, if wife and husband are still married, then yes, as a technical matter either can make whatever claims they wish in a divorce filing from the other. That does not mean that the court has power to hear them, or that such will be successful, however.

If the husband has never lived in Nevada, the divorce court here has extremely limited jurisdiction -- essentially just over the party here, and any property here -- unless he voluntarily chooses to make an appearance. The matter is explained in depth in the article titled "The Basics of Family Law Jurisdiction," on the Published Works page of our firm web site, at http://www.willicklawgroup.com/published_works.

If he DID choose to make an appearance, the court would gain jurisdiction to award alimony, in either direction. But if as you say he has no income, no assets, is disabled, and is subsisting on Social Security, any alimony would probably be ordered in the other direction -- her to him. For details, see the information posted at http://www.willicklawgroup.com/spousal_support_alimony. Also, see the resources on the Property Division page of our firm website, at http://www.willicklawgroup.com/property_rights_division. In Nevada -- technically -- separation of parties does not cease the accrual of community property. Who went where when, and in which order can make a big difference.

If husband did not marry the second woman, there can be no bigamy charge. It is essentially never prosecuted, even when it does occur. And from your description, both parties have lived with others, for years.

You should probably seek consultation with an appropriate family law specialist, and from the tenor of your comments, the prospective client lives elsewhere. I would suggest starting your search with the American Academy of Matrimonial Lawyers, which can be viewed at http://www.aaml.org.

If I've misperceived and he is here, and if you decide you would like to discuss this with one of the attorneys of this firm, please take a look at our consultation policies, procedures, and costs, at http://www.willicklawgroup.com/consultation_policies.

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Answered on 4/15/10, 3:37 pm


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