Legal Question in Family Law in New Hampshire

Divorce

I have owned a house, free & clear, since 1992. It was a gift from my parents, and the deed states they have reservation of rights to it. It can not be sold or mortgaged until both parents are deceased. I married in 2002, we split up in 2006. He has filed for divorce and wants either $10,000 by June 1st, or for me to sell my house and give him $12,000. The only home improvements done in our marriage was painting inside ($100) and a garage roof ($1000). What are the chances that I will have to pay him this money? I didn't think he had any rights at all to it due to the circumstances, but he has a lawyer that says otherwise.


Asked on 3/29/07, 5:08 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Bruce L. Dorner Dorner Law Office

Re: Divorce

I wish I could give you a clear answer. However, I'd need to review the documents relating to the real estate and the pleadings in the divorce action. The general rule, and it may or may not apply to your facts, is that any property acquired during the marriage is subject to division by the court. They do not have give it all to you, all to him, or part to each of you. The judge can do what is determined to be "equitable." I don't know why you owe him the $10,000, so I'd need further details as to whether or not there are other ways to address this question.

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Answered on 3/29/07, 5:12 pm


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