Legal Question in Family Law in New York

Can a divorce force a sale of a home with multiple unmarried owners?

In 2000 I bought a 2 family home with my 2 adult sons, one is single the other married - wife not part of deal. Deed originally was JTWROS and in 2003 changed to TIC. Married son (has one child)does not live in house - took him off mortgage so he could buy his own business. If he gets divorced, can wife claim 1/2 of his 1/3 share? I and my single son paid all bills and upkeep,maintenance etc for house for the past 6.5 years. Married son only contributed $15,000 down pymt +closing and about $5000 in other charges. I paid tens of thousands of $'s. I have accurate records. Can wife force a sale for her share or will she only be able to claim her share if house is ever sold? How do we determine what each share is? Can my son buy her out? I am 62 and after all the money I put into this house, I could not afford to go anywhere - will be retiring soon on a very small income. Was a single parent of 5 children with a dead beat husband so I am quite concerned. HELP!


Asked on 12/19/06, 4:44 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

Phroska L. McAlister PHROSKA LEAKE McALISTER

Re: Can a divorce force a sale of a home with multiple unmarried owners?

Yes, wife can claim an "equitable share or interest" (possibly 1/2 of your son's 1/3 share, or interest) in your family premises.

However, wife's "derivative claim" and would be based upon, and entirely controlled by the terms and conditions of your son's agreement and contract with you and his brother's (CoTenant's of the property).

In addition, each title holder's equitable share and interest (in money terms) would be based upon the respective parties' direct and indirect contrbutions to the acquisition and maintenance of the premises.

Although, it is unlikely you as a "residential Co Tenant" would be excluded, removed from the premises, or compelled to sell, (if the money due to wife, cannot otherwise be paid to wife), wife (or any interested party), can and MAY file a Partition action and demand an accounting, disposition, sale, or other resolution of the property and equity issues, upon any terms the Court may deem appropriate.

Although it is unlikely residential "Co Tenants" (ie., you & son/s,) would be excluded, removed from the premises or compelled to sell, (if the money due to wife, is not paid), wife can or may file a Partition Action, for disposition and resolution of said outstanding issues.

Good luck,

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Answered on 12/25/06, 12:20 am
Andrew Nitzberg Andrew Nitzberg & Associates

Re: Can a divorce force a sale of a home with multiple unmarried owners?

I understand your concern and can offer some reassurance that the soon-to-be-ex-wife has less power than you are assuming.

1. The 1/2 of 1/3 is a 'marital asset' but it is also a financial asset. A worst-case-scenario will give her the $ equivalent of the equity in the house at the time of commencement of divorce.

2. That means that: every day no divorce is filed , more equity goes into the house. On the other hand, every day no one files for divorce is another opportunity for the marriage to be repaired and your son to live happily with a woman he loves.

3. There is virtually no chance that there will be a 'forced sale' of the house. That is an empty threat. Ignore it - it is effective only in panicking people who do not know their rights and the workings of the law.

You are welcome to a consultation for no fee. Email is best to make an appointment.

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Answered on 12/19/06, 5:21 pm


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