Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Oklahoma

Title 42

I'm trying to buy some land but there is an abandoned mobile home on it. The owner of the land was leasing the land to the person that put the mobile home on it. If the land owner agrees to it, could I purchase the land on a owner finance agreement and Title 42 the mobile home myself? I would ask the owner the include the back rent owed in the purchase agreement, work the amount into the land payments. Is this feasible?


Asked on 10/07/02, 12:01 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Hunt John Urgentlegalcare.com

Re: Title 42

Thank you for your question. It sounds as if your objective is to acquire the ownereship of the home as part of the purchase of the property. You did not provide any information about the home as to whether there area any liens on the title. I have been informed that the Title 42 procedure will no longer work if any creditor has a perfected security interest or lien on the title. It is possible that you could do as you outlined but the success will depend on facts which I do not have.

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Answered on 10/07/02, 5:05 pm


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