Legal Question in Family Law in Pennsylvania

I divorced with my ex-husband almost 11 years ago.

We didn't write down anything what need to be happen. We are flexible and didn't have much conflict until recently. I'm supposed to get $35K that was my take of a house when we lived that time. Now, after 11 years I'm starting to pushing to pay me that money. Is it possible legally to take action against him even without written consent?


Asked on 11/28/16, 10:23 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
John Davidson Law Office of John A. Davidson

Then it's probably not going to happen.

Contract over 2 ywars or for real property need to be in writing. Further for a marriage settlement agreement to be enforceable it needs be part of the divorce decree.

{John}

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Answered on 11/29/16, 6:27 am


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