Legal Question in Family Law in Pennsylvania

premarital assets

A friend of mine has owned his home for approximately 10 years. He was recently married (approx. 2 years ago) He did not add his wife's name to the home (deed). This is a premarital asset. If he were to secure a divorce, would she be entitled to any part of this home? In addition, he purchased a truck prior to the marriage, would this be something she could aquire in a divorce. I write to you from the State of Pennsylvania. Thank you.


Asked on 11/26/07, 1:16 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

John Davidson Law Office of John A. Davidson

Re: premarital assets

If the assets were owned prior to the marriage and he can prove it, given these are titled assets he has the documents to prove it. They will be considered non-marital assets and should not be subject to equitable distribution. At least based on the facts you provided.

If you have any questions feel free to contact me. The initial consultation is free.

{John}

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Answered on 11/26/07, 1:29 pm
Glenn Brown Real World Law, P.C.

Re: premarital assets

I agree with John Davidson with the addition that the increase in value of the premarital assets after the date of marriage can be subject to equitable distribution.

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Answered on 11/26/07, 2:24 pm


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