Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Pennsylvania

You do not indicate who is liable on the existing mortgage. And why would the county be selling the home?

If the home is jointly owned, that just means that both people own the home. If only one is on the mortgage, then the mortgage lender can only go after the borrower. If the mortgage is not paid, the lender can foreclose but can only go after the borrower for any deficiency. However, if both owners are on the mortgage then both are at risk.

Counties do not sell land unless the taxes on the land have not been paid. However, most mortgage lenders are not going to let a property be taken for taxes and they will seek to foreclose and pay the taxes out of that. If the property is being taken via eminent domain, the property owners would get compensated by the county but the mortgage lender would still need paid.

I don't understand your question to answer the rest - you need to repost your question with more facts as to why the home would be sold by the county and who would be paying and who would be receiving money.