Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Pennsylvania

My wife and I divorced in February 2013. In May, she moved out of the house and into a home of her own. Both of our names are still on the house, but she feels as though she does not have to pay anything on the house anymore because she does not live there. It is in the process of being sold and now she thinks that she is entitled to half of the profit if the house sells. Is there anyway she can take the money despite not paying for the house anymore? There was no agreement in the divorce as to who got the house and she moved out on her own.


Asked on 11/12/13, 10:25 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Miriam Jacobson Retired from practice of law

You will not be able to convey title to a buyer without her signing the deed too. So she has leverage and you will have to reach some kind of agreement with her in order to complete the sale. The time to have negotiated all of your differences was during the divorce.

THIS RESPONSE IS NOT LEGAL ADVICE, SINCE I DO NOT HAVE ALL OF THE INFORMATION THAT WOULD BE REQUIRED, AND I DO NOT HAVE A REPRESENTATION AGREEMENT WITH YOU.

* If the answers to your question confirm that you have a valid issue or worthwhile claim, your next step should almost always be to establish a dialog with a lawyer who can provide specific advice to you. Contact a lawyer in your county or township.

* Another reason for contacting a lawyer is that it is often impossible to give a good answer in the Internet Q&A format without having more information. The unique circumstances of your situation and things that you may not have thought to mention in your question may completely change the answer. If you want to be sure that you have a complete answer to your question and an understanding of what that answer means, establish a connection with a lawyer who practices in the area of your concern.

Read more
Answered on 11/19/13, 11:25 am


Related Questions & Answers

More Real Estate and Real Property questions and answers in Pennsylvania