Legal Question in Credit and Debt Law in Texas
I was divorced in 2009 and my ex-husband received a car (loan in my name) in the decree. He paid through 9/15/09 and then had it voluntarily repossessed. I know that the contract trumps the decree. However, I'm wondering if because the SOL has passed on the written contract, I am finally able to stop worrying about being sued? Additionally, no one from the credit union ever contacted me. All correspondence was done through him (not named on the loan). I didn't even find out about the repo until after it had been arranged. I know the date of last payment because the third party collector called me a month ago and told me. Please help with any info you can give!
1 Answer from Attorneys
The divorce should have required him to get the car refinanced. That was a mistake. There is no statute of limitations that has run until after the car was to be paid off or repossessed. It didn't start running when the original contract was signed.
Because you are on the note, you could be sued.
Related Questions & Answers
Looking for something else?
10,200 active attorneys ready to answer your legal questions today.
Featured Attorneys
Earn additional revenue and grow your business.
