Legal Question in Criminal Law in Texas
We had a police officer who fraudulently placed orders with us. We shipped and billed his police dept as instructed. Months later, the Chief sent us an affadavit that none of the orders were for the police dept - but for the officer's personal business. The officer has not paid for everything and this news now changes the orders taxable status. He claims we "misunderstood" when taking his order and has sent us an unsigned resale certificate for his business. Upon further research, govt records show his resale cert expired in 2006 and was not valid again until July 2011. His orders were placed in Dec 2010, & March and April 2011. Besides placing him with a collection agency for the unpaid portion (and tax we now have to pay)...can he be reported for supplying us with an invalid resale certificate?
1 Answer from Attorneys
I think he's committed fraud. I'd write a letter to the chief of police telling exactly what this cop did to you.
Good luck with the collection agency. But if it were me, I'd sue the guy.
Related Questions & Answers
-
How do you have an assault case dismissed if the state is who pressed charges? Asked 8/24/11, 2:47 pm in United States Texas Criminal Law
-
Can the police tell if my father has been arrested for a federal crime? Asked 8/24/11, 2:15 pm in United States Texas Criminal Law
-
Hello Attourneys of the LawGuru Team. I will attempt to provide as much information... Asked 8/23/11, 4:01 pm in United States Texas Criminal Law
-
Is it illegal to sell YOUR own RX's? I know that it is illegal to possess a... Asked 8/23/11, 6:54 am in United States Texas Criminal Law
-
If i have no previous record of any kind, will i have to serve any jail time for... Asked 8/22/11, 10:06 pm in United States Texas Criminal Law