Legal Question in Family Law in Texas
RE: child visitation. This is what is written in the Final Divorce Decree. My question is: are the 42 days consecutive if notice of dates is given prior to 01 Apr? I live in the UK, my children are in Texas. I would like them to come to the UK for the 42 days.
What does the line "to be exercised in no more than two separate periods of at least seven consecutive days each" mean?
If the parents live more than 100 miles apart, with written notice by 01Apr. "Possession of the child/children for forty-two days beginning no earlier than the day after the child's school is dismissed for the summer vacation and ending no later than seven days before school resumes at the end of the summer vacation in that year, to be exercised in no more than two separate periods of at least seven consecutive days each, as specified in the written notice, provided that the period or periods of extended summer possession do not interfere with Father's Day Weekend."
Without written notice by 01 Apr. "possession of the child for forty-two consecutive days beginning at 6:00pm on 15 Jun and ending 6:00pm on 27 Jul of that year."
1 Answer from Attorneys
The 42 days can be consecutive, if that is what you want. If you don't make up your mind until after April 1, then they definitely are consecutive. If you choose to make them non-consecutive, you can only break them into two periods (not three or fourt) and each period of visitation must be at least 7 days in length.
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