Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

divorce; division of property

If community assets are used to improve separate property during the marriage, specifically a homestead paid-in-full before the marriage, does the non-owner spouse have an interest in the homestead? If so, what & how much? Does it matter if the homestead has depreciated? If so, what legal proof is needed for the depreciation? Also,does the owner spouse get consideration or compensation for the "free rent" provided to the non-owner spouse?


Asked on 2/06/00, 6:02 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Jimmy L. Verner Jr. Verner & Brumley, P.C.

Re: divorce; division of property

Funny you should ask, we have a brand-new statute on this subject. It is House Bill 734, passed in the 76th regular session of the Texas Legislature, effective September 1, 1999. I've tried to give you the web location of the bill, but I'm not sure LawGuru will accept the link. If not, you can find the bill on the Texas Legislature's web page.

www.capitol.state.tx.us/cgi-bin/tlo/textframe.cmd?LEG=76&SESS=R&CHAMBER=H&BILLTYPE=B&BILLSUFFIX=00734&VERSION=5&TYPE=B

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Answered on 2/08/00, 4:44 pm


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