Legal Question in Family Law in Texas
divorce
My husband and I own a house together. It was paid for in full when we bought it since our previous house had no mortgage when we sold it. That previous house was paid for by my husbands father. We have 2 teenage boys and I would like to retain custody. I work for the Round Rock ISD and have always been steadily employed for our entire marriage; he has had probably over 100 jobs in the last 20 yrs. I would be able to to support the kids and pay for utilities and upkeep on the house- he would be unable to do either.Would I be able to keep the house (both names are on the deed) or would we be required to sell and split the proceeds?
3 Answers from Attorneys
Re: divorce
Everything purchased during a marriage is presumed community property that is purchased during the marriage. Community property is owned by both the husband and wife. The one way that he could possibly try to claim separate property that is the new house is his is if he can trace back and prove his father bought the house either prior to your marriage or purchased it as a gift and gave it to his son only. If he gave it to both of you then that would be community property also. Again, there has to be proof and your husband would have to show proof. Worst case scenario, you might have be able to live in the house until the children reach age 18 and then sell the house and split the proceeds. Both names on the deed help, but were both names on the original deeds of the house sold? If you need anything further or you need to meet with an attorney call me.
John W. Armstrong
Re: divorce
If you file and request a TRO, you may be able to keep it status quo. Contact an attorney
Re: divorce
The simple answer here is that you need to make an appointment and go talk with a good family law attorney and go over all the details of the situation. You are going to need one for the divorce anyway. A divorce with children and real property and a husband who can't / won't keep a job is not for the DIYer.