Legal Question in Family Law in Texas
I have been divorce since july 2008,I separated on september 2007. I had a marriage of 30 years, he did not give explanation why he was doing what he was doing, other that he did not have anyone and that he will like to be single.
On January 2011, we just find out that he married and that have a child of 3 or 4 years old. He denied during the course of the divorce having an affair much less having another child. He lied.
Do I have any legal right to taking to court and prove that he lied under oath and that he has child?. What are my chances?
I divorce in Houston Texas.
Thanks,
gc
1 Answer from Attorneys
If he told this lie under oath ("I didn't have an affair, I didn't have another child"), it would be perjury.
If you were planning to use this as some kind of basis for complaining about the terms of the final decree, you'd want to ask: How would this factor have changed the outcome? Did he expend community property/funds on this affair? What would you gain by going back to court (you would be filing an equitable bill of review)?