Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

Divorce

I messed up the dates & lefted out an important detail with my last question. My husband purchased a home in Oct '95, we have lived in it together since day 1. We lived together prior to that as well, we have been together since Sept 89. We rec'd a Declaration & Registration of Informal Marriage in Sept '05 & set our Date of Declaration as 9-6-95, this date being prior to the purchase of the house. Does this give me any claim to owning the house? He says the house is his & his only & I have no claim to it. He moved out of the house in Feb '07 & is living in our travel trailer on a friends property in Kaufman, TX. Thank you.


Asked on 6/14/07, 10:42 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
James Grissom Law Office of James P. Grissom

Re: Divorce

The facts that you recite state a community property claim. This is something that will have to be asserted and fought for. What he says is not legally binding. Better get a good lawyer.

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Answered on 6/14/07, 11:26 am


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