Legal Question in Family Law in Texas
Divorce, property division.
If a single man owns his home and gets married and after five years divorces wife, can she get part of the home or is she only entitled to part of what they acquired after they married?
Asked on 1/20/05, 11:15 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Austin Nimocks
Austin R. Nimocks & Associates, P.L.L.C.
Re: Divorce, property division.
Both, if you made payments on the home (thereby increasing your equity interest in the home) subsequent to your marriage. However, if you owned the home outright (no mortgage, etc.) in your name before marriage, I do not believe that your spouse would be entitled to a share of or interest in the home.
Answered on 1/21/05, 12:52 pm
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