Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

Re: Divorce

The house is going to be hers becuase she owned it prior to marriage and it is her separate property. Any contents in the house before you and your wife's marriage is also going to be her separate property as well. However, any property purchased or acquired during the five years you two were married is "presumed to be community property" of which you both may have an interest. However, you need to contact a lawyer and discuss this information with them.

Re: Divorce

Probably none. Just being married to her doesn't give you an interest in her separate property house. If any of the contents were purchased during the marriage you have a community interest in them, but anything that was in the house before the marriage is hers. There are some circumstances that might give you some claims - talk to an attorney.